Capital Gains on sale of house
QUESTION:
Hi There,
just a quick question about capital gains. If one constructs a new house, which was used as a principal residence for 1 year, and sells after that year, are the gains taxable? Also, I am finding articles that state the land of a principal residence can not exceed 1/2 an acre without the rest of the property being tax-exempt?
Thanks,
________________________________
david ingram replies:
GOTO the top left hand box at www.centa.com
click on TAX Guide
click on CAPITAL GAINS for an explanation of the history of capital gains tax.
If you built the house to sell, it does not matter if you moved in for a year or two, any profit is straight income and taxable at full ratres. make sure you have "ALL" of your receipts for when the CRA comes calling two or three years later.
If you built the house to live in and you moved in and your circumstances changed and it became necessary to sell, it is tax free.
Land in excess of 1/2 hectare is taxable unless you could not have subdivided the lot.
You will find a good explanation and some sample tax cases in the Capital Gains Section mentioned above.
These other questions may help as well.
-----------------
My question is: Canadian-specific
QUESTION: Hi,
If we buy a fixer-upper to renovate and flip without renting it out what are the allowable expenses for deductions?
Thanks
____________________________________________________________________ david ingram replies: In general anything you spend to do the fixing is a deduction from the final sale profit. This would include but is not limited to: materials, subcontractors, legal, accounting, real estate commissions, surveyors, appraisals, interest on the mortgage, interest on a building loan, interest on material loans (maybe because you used a credit card to buy), truck expenses to get supplies and transport tools, afvertising, utilities, photography, landscaping, trash removal, dumping fees, building permits, architects fees, engineering fees, home inspection fees, insurance, helpers, etc. Remember that any profit is taxable at straight income rates on line 135. Flipping or renovating does NOT create capital gains tax. The following older Questions will explain that a bit. ______________________________________________________________________ DAVID A "friend" who is a BC realtor and has the flipping question presented to her
from time to time recently attended a seminar that was related to this
subject. As a result she was able to provide me with some interesting
thoughts to ponder concerning "intent" and "professional background" when it comes to "flipping houses"
and tax in Canada. You may possibly be looked at as a Developer all the
subsequent implications.
Read the full article at <http://tax.centa.com/comment.php?mode=view&cid=8>
----------------------------------------------------------------------------
david ingram replies:
In Canada, the purchase and sale of any piece of real estate with or without
renovations is considered a sale and subject to straight income tax unless:
1. It was bought for and clearly used as your personal residence and was
intended to be used for an indefinite period of time which is usually in the
five to ten year range.
2. It was bought as and used as a recreational property
3. It was bought for the purposes of earning long term rental income.
In the case number 1, there is no tax.
In the case of numbers 2 and 3, the sale is treated as a capital gain and
only fifty per cent of the profit is taxed at your regular tax rates.
Lots of / many (anyone caught) are taxed full tax rates when they buy a
house, move in, fix it up and sell it a year or two later and then do
another one.
Of course, most are NOT caught in these circumstances.
However, "any" flip is going to be straight income unless the person can
prove that they bought it to live in and then:
* married a person with three children and it is not big enough (had to sell
and bought bigger)
* were transferred to another city (had to sell to buy in new city)
* lost their job, were injured, etc. and can no longer afford to move in. In
this case, they would have to show that they had the finances to have paid
for it when they bought it. (Not only can they not afford it but they have
moved into their parents' basement (boomeranged).
* Inherited a house from their parents and do not need it any more. (are
living in the new house)
You can read more by going to www.centa.com - click on tax guide in the top
left hand corner and then click on the "capital gain" section.
david
This older q & A also gives an idea
My daughter is closing on a presale Yaletown condominium this summer. She
is working until Christmas in Alberta. She returns to Vancouver from Jan to
May and if the job becomes a full time position, then she may return to
Alberta to live. At the time of presale, February 2004, we thought that the
suite would be assigned to her and that she would live in the suite.
I was hoping that she could declare the suite as her permanent residence
since she is only renting in Alberta and the work is not permanent. In
May 2007, she could decide to keep or sell the suite.
What does she need to do in order to qualify the suite as her permanent
residence?
-----------------------------------------
david ingram replies:
There is no absolute answer because you can call a toad a frog all day long
but it is still a toad.
To be a principal residence and tax free for income tax purposes, the
property must have been bought by her to live in and she HAS TO move into
it. - No exceptions that I know of.
You can expect that the CRA will be looking at "every" quick resale in EVERY
downtown building.
In deciding if it is a capital gain or a flip, the CRA will be looking at
the suitability of the unit as a residence, the ability to pay for the unit
and past and even future performance.
In other words if she claimed this one as a principal residence and then did
it again a year later, the CRA would have every right to go back and
reclassify the first one.
Hi There,
just a quick question about capital gains. If one constructs a new house, which was used as a principal residence for 1 year, and sells after that year, are the gains taxable? Also, I am finding articles that state the land of a principal residence can not exceed 1/2 an acre without the rest of the property being tax-exempt?
Thanks,
________________________________
david ingram replies:
GOTO the top left hand box at www.centa.com
click on TAX Guide
click on CAPITAL GAINS for an explanation of the history of capital gains tax.
If you built the house to sell, it does not matter if you moved in for a year or two, any profit is straight income and taxable at full ratres. make sure you have "ALL" of your receipts for when the CRA comes calling two or three years later.
If you built the house to live in and you moved in and your circumstances changed and it became necessary to sell, it is tax free.
Land in excess of 1/2 hectare is taxable unless you could not have subdivided the lot.
You will find a good explanation and some sample tax cases in the Capital Gains Section mentioned above.
These other questions may help as well.
-----------------
My question is: Canadian-specific
QUESTION: Hi,
If we buy a fixer-upper to renovate and flip without renting it out what are the allowable expenses for deductions?
Thanks
____________________________________________________________________ david ingram replies: In general anything you spend to do the fixing is a deduction from the final sale profit. This would include but is not limited to: materials, subcontractors, legal, accounting, real estate commissions, surveyors, appraisals, interest on the mortgage, interest on a building loan, interest on material loans (maybe because you used a credit card to buy), truck expenses to get supplies and transport tools, afvertising, utilities, photography, landscaping, trash removal, dumping fees, building permits, architects fees, engineering fees, home inspection fees, insurance, helpers, etc. Remember that any profit is taxable at straight income rates on line 135. Flipping or renovating does NOT create capital gains tax. The following older Questions will explain that a bit. ______________________________________________________________________ DAVID A "friend" who is a BC realtor and has the flipping question presented to her
from time to time recently attended a seminar that was related to this
subject. As a result she was able to provide me with some interesting
thoughts to ponder concerning "intent" and "professional background" when it comes to "flipping houses"
and tax in Canada. You may possibly be looked at as a Developer all the
subsequent implications.
Read the full article at <http://tax.centa.com/comment.php?mode=view&cid=8>
----------------------------------------------------------------------------
david ingram replies:
In Canada, the purchase and sale of any piece of real estate with or without
renovations is considered a sale and subject to straight income tax unless:
1. It was bought for and clearly used as your personal residence and was
intended to be used for an indefinite period of time which is usually in the
five to ten year range.
2. It was bought as and used as a recreational property
3. It was bought for the purposes of earning long term rental income.
In the case number 1, there is no tax.
In the case of numbers 2 and 3, the sale is treated as a capital gain and
only fifty per cent of the profit is taxed at your regular tax rates.
Lots of / many (anyone caught) are taxed full tax rates when they buy a
house, move in, fix it up and sell it a year or two later and then do
another one.
Of course, most are NOT caught in these circumstances.
However, "any" flip is going to be straight income unless the person can
prove that they bought it to live in and then:
* married a person with three children and it is not big enough (had to sell
and bought bigger)
* were transferred to another city (had to sell to buy in new city)
* lost their job, were injured, etc. and can no longer afford to move in. In
this case, they would have to show that they had the finances to have paid
for it when they bought it. (Not only can they not afford it but they have
moved into their parents' basement (boomeranged).
* Inherited a house from their parents and do not need it any more. (are
living in the new house)
You can read more by going to www.centa.com - click on tax guide in the top
left hand corner and then click on the "capital gain" section.
david
This older q & A also gives an idea
My daughter is closing on a presale Yaletown condominium this summer. She
is working until Christmas in Alberta. She returns to Vancouver from Jan to
May and if the job becomes a full time position, then she may return to
Alberta to live. At the time of presale, February 2004, we thought that the
suite would be assigned to her and that she would live in the suite.
I was hoping that she could declare the suite as her permanent residence
since she is only renting in Alberta and the work is not permanent. In
May 2007, she could decide to keep or sell the suite.
What does she need to do in order to qualify the suite as her permanent
residence?
-----------------------------------------
david ingram replies:
There is no absolute answer because you can call a toad a frog all day long
but it is still a toad.
To be a principal residence and tax free for income tax purposes, the
property must have been bought by her to live in and she HAS TO move into
it. - No exceptions that I know of.
You can expect that the CRA will be looking at "every" quick resale in EVERY
downtown building.
In deciding if it is a capital gain or a flip, the CRA will be looking at
the suitability of the unit as a residence, the ability to pay for the unit
and past and even future performance.
In other words if she claimed this one as a principal residence and then did
it again a year later, the CRA would have every right to go back and
reclassify the first one.
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